35 questions, one from each group, the way the exam is built. 26 correct to pass. Nothing is marked until you finish.
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G1A021 of 35§ 97.305
On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
G1B042 of 35§ 97.113(c)
Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?
G1C033 of 35§ 97.303(h)(1)
What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
G1D024 of 35§ 97.509(b)(3)(i)
What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?
G1E065 of 35§ 97.301, ITU Radio Regulations
The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?
G2A116 of 35
Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling "CQ DX"?
G2B067 of 35
How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
G2C108 of 35
What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?
G2D079 of 35
Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?
G2E1410 of 35
What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?
G3A0411 of 35
Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
G3B0312 of 35
Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?
G3C0713 of 35
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
G4A0114 of 35
What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?
G4B0115 of 35
What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
G4C0316 of 35
What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?
G4D0317 of 35
What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
G4E0618 of 35
What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?
G5A1019 of 35
Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
G5B1420 of 35
What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?
G5C0421 of 35
What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?
G6A0122 of 35
What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?
G6B0623 of 35
What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
G7A0124 of 35
What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?
G7B0325 of 35
Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?
G7C1126 of 35
Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?
G8A0427 of 35
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
G8B0628 of 35
What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?
G8C0729 of 35
Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?
G9A1130 of 35
What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
G9B0231 of 35
Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
G9C0332 of 35
How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?
G9D1233 of 35
What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?
G0A0834 of 35§ 97.13(c)(2)
Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?