Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

1. AOnly a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
2. BOnly a person named in an amateur station license grant
3. CAny person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
4. DAny person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?

1. ANo limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
2. BReasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
3. CSuch structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstrated
4. DSuch structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineer

What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?

1. AA special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
2. BAn environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
3. COperators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
4. DOperators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station

Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages?

1. ATelecommand signals to terrestrial repeaters
2. BTelecommand signals from a space telecommand station
3. CAuxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio
4. DMesh network backbone nodes

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

1. APhotocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
2. BThree VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
3. CIssue the examinee the new or upgrade license
4. DAll these choices are correct

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

1. A440 MHz - 450 MHz
2. B53 MHz - 54 MHz
3. C222 MHz - 223 MHz
4. D420 MHz - 430 MHz

How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder?

1. AThe signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
2. BThe signal is passed through a nonlinear filter
3. CThe signal is reduced to I and Q components, and the Q component is filtered out
4. DThe signal is mixed with a local oscillator signal and the difference product is transmitted

What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

1. ASpecific tone frequencies
2. BElapsed time
3. CSpecific tone amplitudes
4. DA two-tone signal

Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data?

1. ANEC
2. BARLD
3. CADIF
4. DOCF

Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

1. ATime-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations
2. BStoring and forwarding digital messages
3. CJudging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
4. DHigh-speed CW identification to avoid fading

How do ALE stations establish contact?

1. AALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
2. BALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
3. CALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
4. DALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

1. AWhen the Moon is at perigee
2. BWhen the Moon is full
3. CWhen the Moon is at apogee
4. DWhen the MUF is above 30 MHz

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1. A1,000 miles
2. B2,500 miles
3. C5,000 miles
4. D7,500 miles

How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?

1. AIt is approximately 15 percent farther
2. BIt is approximately 20 percent nearer
3. CIt is approximately 50 percent farther
4. DThey are approximately the same

What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter?

1. AAmplify low-level signals for more accurate counting
2. BMultiply a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
3. CPrevent oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
4. DReduce the signal frequency to within the counter's operating range

Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

1. AS11
2. BS12
3. CS21
4. DS22

What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

1. AThe receiver noise is 6 dB above the theoretical minimum
2. BThe theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
3. CThe noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
4. DThe receiver noise is 3 dB above theoretical minimum

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

1. AOdd-order products of two signals in the band being received are also likely to be within the band
2. BOdd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters
3. COdd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
4. DOdd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?

1. AArcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
2. BA defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
3. CA malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
4. DAll these choices are correct

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

1. A436.6 kHz
2. B218.3 kHz
3. C31.4 kHz
4. D15.7 kHz

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?

1. A63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2. B63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
3. C27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
4. D27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

1. AVenn diagram
2. BNear field diagram
3. CPhasor diagram
4. DFar field diagram

As a conductor's diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length?

1. AThickness has no effect on electrical length
2. BIt varies randomly
3. CIt decreases
4. DIt increases

Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

1. ABase-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 ohms to 7 ohms
2. BBase-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 ohms to 0.7 ohms
3. CBase-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 volts to 7 volts
4. DBase-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 volts to 0.7 volts

Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

1. AMetal-semiconductor junction
2. BElectrolytic rectifier
3. CPIN junction
4. DThermionic emission diode

Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?

1. ASchottky TTL
2. BECL
3. CNMOS
4. DCMOS

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

1. APermittivity
2. BResistance
3. CReactivity
4. DPermeability

How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

1. AThrough a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
2. BMMICs require no operating bias
3. CThrough a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
4. DDirectly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

1. A0.5 volts
2. B0.7 volts
3. C1.1 volts
4. D1.5 volts

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

1. AIt produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0
2. BIt produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1
3. CIt produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1
4. DIt produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 1

What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier?

1. AApproximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
2. BApproximately halfway between the emitter voltage and the base voltage
3. CAt a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
4. DAt a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

1. AIt introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
2. BIt introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
3. CIt cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value
4. DReactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances

How does a switchmode voltage regulator work?

1. ABy alternating the output between positive and negative voltages
2. BBy varying the duty cycle of pulses input to a filter
3. CBy varying the conductivity of a pass element
4. DBy switching between two Zener diode reference voltages

Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?

1. AFor compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
2. BTo reduce impulse noise reception
3. CFor higher efficiency
4. DTo remove third-order distortion products

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

1. AAn adaptive filter
2. BA notch filter
3. CA Hilbert-transform filter
4. DAn elliptical filter

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

1. A0.23 volts
2. B2.3 volts
3. C-0.23 volts
4. D-2.3 volts

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

1. AThe phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
2. BAmplitude values that represent the desired waveform
3. CThe phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
4. DFrequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

1. A2.5 to 1
2. B25 to 1
3. C1 to 1
4. D13 to 1

What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?

1. A0.3
2. B3
3. C0.6
4. D6

What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal?

1. AHow many carriers may be present at the same time
2. BThe possible phase and amplitude states for each symbol
3. CFrequency response of the signal stream
4. DThe number of bits used for error correction in the protocol

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

1. AFrequency hopping
2. BDirect sequence
3. CBinary phase-shift keying
4. DPhase compandored spread spectrum

What does the term "ground gain" mean?

1. AThe change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
2. BThe gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
3. CTo force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
4. DAn increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

1. AA wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
2. BA wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
3. CA wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source
4. DA wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it

What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

1. AFewer lobes form with the major lobes increasing closer to broadside to the wire
2. BAdditional lobes form with major lobes increasingly aligned with the axis of the antenna
3. CThe elevation angle increases, and the front-to-rear ratio decreases
4. DThe elevation angle increases, while the front-to-rear ratio is unaffected

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

1. A2 dB
2. B3 dB
3. C4 dB
4. D6 dB

Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?

1. ADouble-bazooka match
2. BBeta or hairpin match
3. CGamma match
4. DAll these choices are correct

Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length?

1. ASkin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
2. BSkin effect is more pronounced in the coaxial cable
3. CElectromagnetic waves move faster in coaxial cable than in air
4. DElectromagnetic waves move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?

1. AConstant-SWR circles
2. BTransmission line length circles
3. CCoaxial-length circles
4. DRadiation-pattern circles

What is receiving directivity factor (RDF)?

1. AForward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction
2. BRelative directivity compared to isotropic
3. CRelative directivity compared to a dipole
4. DPeak antenna gain compared to average gain over the hemisphere around and above the antenna

When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

1. AAn evaluation must always be performed
2. BWhen the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts
3. CWhen the station's operating mode is CW
4. DWhen the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts